[foo]

Hannie, on Jul 2 2007, 08:43 AM, said:

What does that mean, "believe Mike Lawrence"?

Gonzalo, it seems that you play the balancing 1NT overcall as up to 16 pts, right? So then that would be the straightforward call in my opinion. This is a little heavier than what is standard for balancing over 1m in the US.

Not everyone plays the various balancing NT bids as Mike Lawrence suggests in _Balancing_.

foo-pa-pa-1N= 11-14 or as much as 16 if foo was a Major
foo-pa-pa-2N= Big NT
foo-pa-pa-X followed by NT if pd takes a bid= Medium NT.

If you play Crowhurst AKA "range finder Stayman" in balancing auctions (for NA readers, see Barry Rigel's book on Precision for a write up on this method), then your balancing 1N can always be 11-16. Thus making X, then 2N= 17-18; and a balancing 2N= 19-20.

[ArtK78]

Double, and bid 2NT over a 2C response.

This is standard. 1NT in balancing seat is typically 11-14, and double followed by a minimum NT rebid is typically 15-18.

The short club is a flaw, but you can't have everything (I had a spade mixed in with my clubs).

The question was raised "What is the meaning of double followed by 2D?" For most players, this is an easy question to answer - it is the replacement for a strong cue bid. Clearly, it shows a strong hand. In this day and age, it does not create a game force (it is not THAT strong). But the 2D bidder is going to show a very strong hand that is not appropriate for any other bid - either too strong for a jump balance (1D-P-P-2H, for example) or the hand cannot be accurately described by any no trump bid (by the way, 2NT in balancing seat is typically 19-21 HCP). It could be a super strong balanced hand without a diamond stopper, for example.

Those few posters who stated that a 1NT balance shows 15-18 or that the 2NT rebid over partner's 2C response to your balancing double would show 20-22 are out of the mainstream. That doesn't mean that they are wrong, just that their methods are not common.

[kenrexford]

Yeah, the more I think about it, the more I like ELC's after 1minor-P-P-X. That being said, I'm not sure that this appraoch would cover a hand this strong anyway. So, I'm still stuck with 2NT no matter what.

[Fluffy]

Hannie, on Jul 2 2007, 03:20 PM, said:

Fluffy, on Jul 2 2007, 09:25 AM, said:

Hannie, on Jul 2 2007, 01:43 PM, said:

What does that mean, "believe Mike Lawrence"?

Gonzalo, it seems that you play the balancing 1NT overcall as up to 16 pts, right? So then that would be the straightforward call in my opinion. This is a little heavier than what is standard for balancing over 1m in the US.

No, when LHO opens a minor it is X + 1NT = 13-16, but there is no way I will bid 1NT here because I would raise partner's major instead.

1NT is played as 9-12



After 1M-pass-pass the X+1NT just doesn't exist so 1NT is 10-14 and direct 2NT is 15-18.

I don't understand Fluffy. Say you have some 4-2-4-3 or 4-3-4-2 15-count. The systemic way to bid this hand is to double and then bid 1NT over the expected 1H, yet you have no way to show your hand if partner bids 2C? How is this playable?

Nothing is perfect,you are suposed to pass 2♣ with those hands.