The auction may look somewhat sensible, until you hear that 4C was alerted (yes, it shouldn't have been, yes it was), and when it gets to South he's told that 4C is gerber (!) and that 4NT shows no aces (!!).
5S goes off and I'm duly called to the table by South who insists that if he knows that East has an Ace he'll double and not bid 5S.
Having talked to the pair in question I was satisfied that they were playing Gerber there ("4C is _always_ Gerber", both partners were adamant, no, of course there's not a convention card) and the correct description of 4NT is "Undiscussed" ("We've never had any interference before").
Assuming you agree with my determination of the correct explanations, opinions on a ruling based on MI, UI or otherwise? I'm also interested in result if you don't agree, but that's the primary question.
P-3♥-X-4♣
4S-4N-5S