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Friday's WWBC Question 1 ATB

#1 User is offline   Hanoi5 

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Posted 2010-June-06, 10:31

All red, North dealt, bidding went:

Pa-1-Pa-1
2NT-Pa-3-3
Pa-5-All pass

Scoring: MP


Down one. 13% of MP's world-wide. What was the worst bid, Pass over 2NT (we were playing 12-14 NT), 3 or 5?

View Postwyman, on 2012-May-04, 09:48, said:

Also, he rates to not have a heart void when he leads the 3.


View Postrbforster, on 2012-May-20, 21:04, said:

Besides playing for fun, most people also like to play bridge to win


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#2 User is offline   cherdanno 

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Posted 2010-June-06, 10:58

Both get blame for agreeing to play weak NT without discussing how to show a strong NT in competition (double of 2NT).
The single worst call is 5 though, obviously.
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#3 User is offline   PrecisionL 

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Posted 2010-June-06, 11:02

This seems easy to me, pass of 2NT (showing minimum hand?) and then making up for the pass by raising to 5.
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#4 User is offline   OleBerg 

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Posted 2010-June-06, 11:52

5 is silly.

Since East somehow forgot to double 2NT, 4 would have been a nice try to get the message across.
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#5 User is offline   Free 

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Posted 2010-June-07, 03:43

East is nuts.
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#6 User is offline   pooltuna 

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Posted 2010-June-07, 07:23

Hanoi5, on Jun 6 2010, 11:31 AM, said:

All red, North dealt, bidding went:

Pa-1-Pa-1
2NT-Pa-3-3
Pa-5-All pass

Scoring: MP


Down one. 13% of MP's world-wide. What was the worst bid, Pass over 2NT (we were playing 12-14 NT), 3 or 5?

In spite of the others contention that 5 was wacko I have no clue what 3 shows in this system for me it would be a GF opposite a minimum hand and so 5 looks like a slam try opposite this and would make sense.
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#7 User is offline   kfay 

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Posted 2010-June-07, 08:09

pooltuna, on Jun 7 2010, 08:23 AM, said:

Hanoi5, on Jun 6 2010, 11:31 AM, said:

All red, North dealt, bidding went:

Pa-1-Pa-1
2NT-Pa-3-3
Pa-5-All pass

<!-- EASTWEST begin --><table border='1'> <tr> <td> <table> <tr> <td>Dealer:</td> <td> North </td> </tr> <tr> <td>Vul:</td> <td> Both </td> </tr> <tr> <td>Scoring:</td> <td> MP </td> </tr> </table> </td> <td> <table> <tr> <th> <table> <tr> <th class='spades'>♠</th> <td> KQ9542 </td> </tr> <tr> <th class='hearts'>♥</th> <td> J864 </td> </tr> <tr> <th class='diamonds'>♦</th> <td> T </td> </tr> <tr> <th class='clubs'>♣</th> <td> Q9 </td> </tr> </table> </th> <th> <table> <tr> <th class='spades'>♠</th> <td> AJT </td> </tr> <tr> <th class='hearts'>♥</th> <td> AT52 </td> </tr> <tr> <th class='diamonds'>♦</th> <td> KJ4 </td> </tr> <tr> <th class='clubs'>♣</th> <td> AT5 </td> </tr> </table> </th> </tr> </table> </td> <td>  </td> </tr> </table><!-- EASTWEST end -->

Down one. 13% of MP's world-wide. What was the worst bid, Pass over 2NT (we were playing 12-14 NT), 3 or 5?

In spite of the others contention that 5 was wacko I have no clue what 3 shows in this system for me it would be a GF opposite a minimum hand and so 5 looks like a slam try opposite this and would make sense.

Yes and no... doesn't W presumably know that E isn't a minimum because he doesn't have clubs and, therefore, must have a strong NT? It sure seems this way to me. So they decided to GF with their nice 6-4, fine. Seems like E didn't appreciate this and so thought W was stronger, bidding 5 even though they had KJ not really carrying full weight, etc...
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