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What went wrong? ATB, 2/1 GF, not a lot of discussion

Poll: What went wrong? (34 member(s) have cast votes)

Which calls do you disagree with?

  1. South's 2S (2 votes [3.85%])

    Percentage of vote: 3.85%

  2. North's 3H (13 votes [25.00%])

    Percentage of vote: 25.00%

  3. South's 4C (0 votes [0.00%])

    Percentage of vote: 0.00%

  4. North's 4H (4 votes [7.69%])

    Percentage of vote: 7.69%

  5. South's 4NT (6 votes [11.54%])

    Percentage of vote: 11.54%

  6. North's pass (27 votes [51.92%])

    Percentage of vote: 51.92%

  7. Agree with all calls (0 votes [0.00%])

    Percentage of vote: 0.00%

Who's to blame for the missed slam?

  1. North (31 votes [81.58%])

    Percentage of vote: 81.58%

  2. South (5 votes [13.16%])

    Percentage of vote: 13.16%

  3. No real blame -- just lack of agreements (2 votes [5.26%])

    Percentage of vote: 5.26%

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#1 User is offline   awm 

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Posted 2011-January-21, 11:08



N/S are playing 2/1 without a lot of time for discussion. South was dealer. The auction was:

1 - 2
2 - 3
4 - 4
4NT - Pass

Obviously 6NT or 6 is cold, and 7 has reasonable play. The other table played in a somewhat ridiculous 6, which made when diamonds broke 3-3.

Which calls do you agree/disagree with, and who do you blame for the result?
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a.k.a. Appeal Without Merit
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#2 User is offline   gwnn 

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Posted 2011-January-21, 11:33

I don't like South offering 4N if that indeed was an offer to play 4N, or I don't like North passing RKC if 4N was RKC

south has a slam force when he found out about the club fit
... and I can prove it with my usual, flawless logic.
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#3 User is offline   karlson 

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Posted 2011-January-21, 12:10

I think 4N is obviously keycard without discussion. It would not be natural in my regular partnerhsips either.

The auction was ok up to that point, though I think that 3 should be a punt, and north should just bid 3N (15-17) over 2.
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#4 User is offline   MrAce 

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Posted 2011-January-21, 12:23

 gwnn, on 2011-January-21, 11:33, said:

I don't like South offering 4N if that indeed was an offer to play 4N, or I don't like North passing RKC if 4N was RKC


Me neither
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#5 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2011-January-21, 12:35

O_o?

North bid 3 instead of 2NT to consume all space and put pressure on partner, then when partner bid keycard he decided that since he put so much pressure onhim, maybe he doesn't have what he's suposed to and didn't wanna answer, hope he didn't wanan blame partner on the afterthough.
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#6 User is offline   the_dude 

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Posted 2011-January-21, 14:00

In my way of understanding, North's only way to get out of this auction (should he want to) is to bid 4NT over 4. His 4 bid is a cue bid in support of clubs AND confirms that he is interested. As well he should be .. I think the 4 bid is correct.

Now, 4NT is RKC without any question .. so lets ask North why he passed blackwood :)
If no one comes from the future to stop you from doing it then how bad a decision could it really be?
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#7 User is offline   nigel_k 

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Posted 2011-January-21, 18:41

North 75%.

I don't agree with North's 3 or his pass of 4NT. Those are the worst calls and North is getting most of the blame.

However, South's 4NT was an unnecessary risk since he is bidding 6 anyway and there is no way to find the grand after using Blackwood. Though if it was matchpoints and South was angling for 6NT then 4NT makes some sense I suppose.
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#8 User is offline   TWO4BRIDGE 

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Posted 2011-January-21, 21:15

 karlson, on 2011-January-21, 12:10, said:

I think 4N is obviously keycard without discussion. It would not be natural in my regular partnerhsips either.

The auction was ok up to that point, though I think that 3 should be a punt, and north should just bid 3N (15-17) over 2.

"By the Numbers "

I like Carlson's "picture bid" of 3NT over 2S..... showing 15-17.

What more does Opener need with his 18 hcp ?..... just bid 6NT.
Don Stenmark
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"imo by far in bridge the least understood concept is how to bid over a jump-shift
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#9 User is offline   HeartA 

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Posted 2011-January-22, 01:01

 the_dude, on 2011-January-21, 14:00, said:

In my way of understanding, North's only way to get out of this auction (should he want to) is to bid 4NT over 4. His 4 bid is a cue bid in support of clubs AND confirms that he is interested. As well he should be .. I think the 4 bid is correct.

Now, 4NT is RKC without any question .. so lets ask North why he passed blackwood :)

Agree. South had agreed with .
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#10 User is offline   cherdano 

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Posted 2011-January-22, 03:50

3 is very bad, this should show more shape. Bidding 3NT seems a standout, show your extra strength already!
4 at this point should be an offer to play with 5-6, so that's also out. North doesn't have a convenient slam try at this point - he should have shown his extra strength earlier!
I also think 4NT is RKCB, so North made 3 bad bids. 2 was a good bid though!
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#11 User is offline   mcphee 

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Posted 2011-January-22, 05:09

I am not too pleased to see the 3H bid here, 2N is far better choice really. Not knowing if the 2S bid shows any extras is an agreement area in 2/1. S obviously knew his side was close to slam when partner bid 2C. Even though they may not have been on firm ground I dislike the pass of 4N and think the N player is getting the blame for this.
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#12 User is offline   Phil 

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Posted 2011-January-22, 12:03

3 leads to complications, and I think it should be reserved for hands that are still interested in playing in hearts, so it shows a 5-6 generally. Over 2N, a 3 call should get the auction oriented toward slam.

I like:

1 - 2
2 - 2N
3 - 3N
4 - 4
4 - 4N
5 - 5
5N -

7 is possible here, since South has given an excellent description, however North can only count 12 tricks it may not be bid.
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#13 User is offline   whereagles 

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Posted 2011-January-22, 13:11

What the heck is 3? South can't have hearts, so why not 2NT instead? Then South can bid 3 and it's a piece of cake to reach 6 now.
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#14 User is offline   TWO4BRIDGE 

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Posted 2011-January-24, 19:39

 awm, on 2011-January-21, 11:08, said:



N/S are playing 2/1 without a lot of time for discussion. South was dealer. The auction was:

1 - 2
2 - 3
4 - 4
4NT - Pass

Obviously 6NT or 6 is cold, and 7 has reasonable play. The other table played in a somewhat ridiculous 6, which made when diamonds broke 3-3.

Which calls do you agree/disagree with, and who do you blame for the result?

The auction became convoluted with the 2rebid.

So much clearer to use Max Hardy's 1st priority rule in the 1D-2C! ( GF ) auction...
and that is for Opener to rebid a 5 card Diam suit. Not only could this be important info for Responder ( he could have 3 card support ), but ALL of the 2-level remains to find a 4-4 Major fit:

1D - 2C!
2D - 2H
2S - 2NT
??
Now with no 2 quick losers in the side suits, Opener ( with his fine 18 hcp ) is ready to go key card-- and what better way than a 4C! Minorwood bid:

4C! - 4NT ( 2 + Q )
5D! ( kickback for Kings, since 5C would be a sign-off ) - 5H ( K )
5S! ( 2nd K-ask; grand slam try ) - 6H ( NO K but extra tricks in the Ht suit )
6NT or 7C ( optimist: good chances in the Diam suit hoping to ruff out the Q or fall back on the Sp finesse; or dummy reversal )
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - -
1) One problem I see is that Responder could have made his 2/1 GF bid with ONLY a 4 card suit ( as we have often seen here on the forums....) but the 6H bid should imply at least a 5 card Cl suit.

2) There is something to be said for Responder going key card....since he is the only one who knows of the 5 card Cl suit and the 4 solid Hts..... but he needs cuebids in Diam and Sp before going RKC....But Opener is not going to waste time for that when he is ready after the 2NT bid... and he can do it efficiently with Minorwood.
Don Stenmark
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#15 User is offline   kenberg 

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Posted 2011-January-25, 09:40

Is 3 really so bad? Consider




Here, 5 is pretty safe, on a good day you could make six if you had to, while 3NT is a fair contract but will not succeed if a player holds five spades and the ace of clubs.

Now would a S player bid 2 over 2 with that hand? It depends on assumed agreements. To my mind 1-2-2 is best used to show extras, but after 1-2 there are two majors to sort out and it is best to get started on it. So yes, I think S would bid 2 with that.

After 3 and 4 I didn't much like 4 but, on further thought, it's OK. Maybe S, at this point, has to allow for the fact that the partnership is not on solid ground with complex sequences and just bid 6. Surely there should be a play for 12 tricks, and even if he finds out about the keys it seems a grand is risky, so go for it.


I play a lot of pick-up on bbo these days and it gives a guy an appreciation for bidding on plausible hope, aka bashing.
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#16 User is offline   Free 

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Posted 2011-January-26, 02:29

3 is aweful, he has a clear 2NT call.
I don't like pass after 4NT, imo after bidding 4 after 4 sets the suit and shows a control, so 4NT is Blacky.
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#17 User is offline   whereagles 

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Posted 2011-January-26, 04:19

kenberg, in your example 3 isn't going to make it easier to reach 5.
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#18 User is offline   kenberg 

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Posted 2011-January-26, 07:09

 whereagles, on 2011-January-26, 04:19, said:

kenberg, in your example 3 isn't going to make it easier to reach 5.


Doesn't this depend on how 3]He] is understood?

Cherdano says

Quote

3♥ is very bad, this should show more shape. Bidding 3NT seems a standout, show your extra strength already!

Phil Says

Quote

3♥ leads to complications, and I think it should be reserved for hands that are still interested in playing in hearts, so it shows a 5-6 generally.


Now of course both these gentlemen think 3 wrong because the shape is not that extreme. But if 3 does indeed show a two-suited hand then I think it will help get them to clubs with my example hand.

It's true that over 2 I would bid 2NT (not 3NT, until we find a fit I don't see I have so much extra strength). My reasons would mostly be that w/o discussion I am not so sure what partner will make of 3 and presumably NT is a plausible strain.

With the hands as they actually are, partner will bid 3 over 2NT and now we are in great shape. But opener will not always have a 17 count with AJx of clubs. On some S hands we will want to be in some number, perhaps a large number, of clubs and on some hands we will want to be in NT.

Anyway, I would bid 2NT but, assuming that 3 really does show a club heart two-suiter, I don't think it is as bad a call as has been suggested.

Added: However, if N thinks that 3H shows a club heart two-suiter ans S now says fine, I choose clubs, I have a hard time understanding the pass of 4NT. So I guess I have to admit to confusion. I am trying to understand this by imagining what each partner thought his bid showed. Somehow it doesn't add up.
Ken
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#19 User is offline   FrancesHinden 

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Posted 2011-January-29, 08:43

Mainly what this auction shows is that you can't just agree to play "2/1" and expect to be on the same wavelength on a longer auction.
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