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A set from 4/6/11

#1 User is offline   Phil 

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Posted 2011-April-07, 09:55

IMPs, short matches

1. T86 9832 64 AQ73

(Pass) - pass - (1) - 1;
(Pass) - 2 - (pass) - 3N;
(pass} - ?

2. red/white

AKQ3 KQ83 A983 4

1 - (1) - dbl - (pass)
2 - (3) - ?

3.

KJT3 KJ4 73 7632

1 - (2) - 2 - {pass);
4 - (pass) - ?
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#2 User is offline   JLOGIC 

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Posted 2011-April-07, 10:37

1) 4S obviously?

2) 3S

3) If 4C is a splinter, I would bid 4S! If it's a suit, I'd bid 4H!
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#3 User is offline   Phil 

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Posted 2011-April-07, 10:55

View PostJLOGIC, on 2011-April-07, 10:37, said:

1) 4S obviously?

2) 3S

3) If 4C is a splinter, I would bid 4S! If it's a suit, I'd bid 4H!


Our agreement is that 4 is a suit in comp, but a splinter with no comp.. IS this a competitive auction? I didn't think so and took it as a splinter.
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#4 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2011-April-07, 11:19

View PostPhil, on 2011-April-07, 10:55, said:

Our agreement is that 4 is a suit in comp, but a splinter with no comp.. IS this a competitive auction? I didn't think so and took it as a splinter.

There are arguments in favour of both meanings, and "in competition" may mean either "in an auction where they've competed" or "immediately over a competitive action".

Sorry, I know that's not very helpful.
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#5 User is offline   aguahombre 

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Posted 2011-April-07, 11:26

View PostPhil, on 2011-April-07, 10:55, said:

Our agreement is that 4 is a suit in comp, but a splinter with no comp.. IS this a competitive auction? I didn't think so and took it as a splinter.


The way you worded your agreement is contradictory with your conclusion. There has been competition, so "splinter with no competition" has gone bye bye. I agree that this has turned into a non-competitive auction despite the overcall. If your partner's understanding was different from yours, then you need to use a term other than "no competition" to describe when splinters apply.
"Bidding Spades to show spades can work well." (Kenberg)
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#6 User is offline   Phil 

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Posted 2011-April-07, 12:00

View Postaguahombre, on 2011-April-07, 11:26, said:

The way you worded your agreement is contradictory with your conclusion. There has been competition, so "splinter with no competition" has gone bye bye. I agree that this has turned into a non-competitive auction despite the overcall. If your partner's understanding was different from yours, then you need to use a term other than "no competition" to describe when splinters apply.


Its not particularly relevant to the hand, however there is no contradiction. It is a function of defining 'what does competition mean?', which is what I said previously.

I think Gnasher portrayed the issue accurately.
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#7 User is offline   quiddity 

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Posted 2011-April-07, 12:22

View PostJLOGIC, on 2011-April-07, 10:37, said:

1) 4S obviously?


I didn't find this one to be obvious, but I'm not sure what to expect from partner's hand (overcalls 1 only but then blasts to game opposite a simple raise). I was imagining a hand with spades which run opposite a fit and some quick tricks on the side.
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#8 User is offline   FrancesHinden 

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Posted 2011-April-07, 12:56

1. Pass
2. Double. Particularly if partner might have only 3 hearts.
3. This isn't a bidding problem, it's a "what are my agreements" problem. I can't help you there.
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#9 User is offline   AlexJonson 

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Posted 2011-April-07, 13:58

1. Pass - why not.

2. 4D - promising hand 3S seems to likely to create confusion.

3. 4H - splinter, fragment, whatever, I want to play in 4H.
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#10 User is offline   JLOGIC 

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Posted 2011-April-07, 14:04

Frances, do you not play double of 3D in the 2nd one as a game try?

I am not sure I would double even if it was penalty as we have a fairly likely slam on r/w, and I would expect partner to pass it with a stiff which could be very bad, but tbh I didn't really consider it because I thought it was "standard" to play it as a game try, but maybe this is not a good assumption to make.

I don't understand passing on hand 1. We have a ruffing value in diamonds and our honors (few as they are) are concentrated.
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#11 User is offline   Vampyr 

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Posted 2011-April-07, 14:51

Using hands from the future is a much more effective way to profit from the advice offered. I think it should be universal practice on BBO.
I know not with what weapons World War III will be fought, but World War IV will be fought with sticks and stones -- Albert Einstein
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#12 User is offline   ArtK78 

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Posted 2011-April-07, 15:28

View PostVampyr, on 2011-April-07, 14:51, said:

Using hands from the future is a much more effective way to profit from the advice offered. I think it should be universal practice on BBO.


I have to admit that I was doing some head scratching upon reading this, until I realized that in many parts of the world 4/6/11 means June 4, 2011, rather than April 6, 2011, as intended.
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#13 User is offline   Phil 

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Posted 2011-April-07, 19:04

1. This person passed. Partner held AQxxx AQ AJxx xx. 4 seems better on balance. 3N could have been made but wasn't.

Edit: he just told me was AQxxx AQx AJx xx ;)

2. On the 1st the player that held these cards bulldozed it into 7 when pard showed A + K + AK. However pard also held ATx (2335) of hearts and couldn't manage losing a diamond at the end. 3 goes for a zillion but I think it should be maximal as Justin says.

3 This hand bid 4. I think the 4 bidder should slow it down with Ax AQxxxxx Axx x, but the poor slam was bid and was down.
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#14 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2011-April-08, 01:40

View PostPhil, on 2011-April-07, 19:04, said:

3 This hand bid 4. I think the 4 bidder should slow it down with Ax AQxxxxx Axx x, but the poor slam was bid and was down.


I don't think opener should splinter. He needs something very specific like K and KQJx (or the same in spades). The splinter won't tell him whether he's opposite that hand. What it will do is to get him to six opposite many hands where slam is awful, eg Kxxx Kxx Kxx xxx
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#15 User is offline   whereagles 

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Posted 2011-April-08, 04:03

1. When in doubt... bid the major. Besides, there isn't even that much of a doubt: we got ruffs and if pard has the club king we may even have a discard.

2. 4NT. Keep it simple. Won't try for 7, though. There will probably be a diamond or club loser.

3. 4. More on feeling than on reason.
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#16 User is offline   JLOGIC 

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Posted 2011-April-09, 01:14

Bump? Interested in more discussion if anyone else is.
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#17 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2011-April-09, 01:49

View PostJLOGIC, on 2011-April-09, 01:14, said:

Bump? Interested in more discussion if anyone else is.

About which one?
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#18 User is offline   JLOGIC 

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Posted 2011-April-09, 01:52

View Postgnasher, on 2011-April-09, 01:49, said:

About which one?


The first
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#19 User is offline   cherdano 

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Posted 2011-April-09, 02:21

I would neither bid 3N with opener's hand nor pass 3N with responder's hand. Not sure that's a good starting point to contribute to an interesting discussion...
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#20 User is offline   AlexJonson 

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Posted 2011-April-09, 03:38

On hand one I guess we are not expecting to make anything, holding pretty much the low end of a raise when partner turns out to be strong. A trump lead is a fair possibility though we do probably get one ruff.

Are we bidding 4S expecting it to cost less than 3NT typically?
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