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E-W playing 4-card majors. What's the plan?
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Weird spot...
#1
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Posted 2012-April-30, 06:31
E-W playing 4-card majors. What's the plan?
#2
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Posted 2012-April-30, 07:00
Pass in tempo
#3
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Posted 2012-April-30, 07:09
Double then bid 2NT.
#4
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Posted 2012-April-30, 07:12
While, at first glance, this hand appears to be too strong to pass, the alternative stated by dkham is also flawed. It is right on strength but wrong on shape (singleton small diamond is a major flaw).
All in all, pass is likely to be best.
All in all, pass is likely to be best.
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Posted 2012-April-30, 07:50
What strength 1NT opening are the opponents playing? If a weak NT, I like pass best; if strong I might consider dbl and 2NT.
#6
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Posted 2012-April-30, 08:15
I'd pass, but at r/w I might be tempted, although....
At r/w LHO is rarely passing, so passing carries less risk in 2012.
At r/w LHO is rarely passing, so passing carries less risk in 2012.
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#7
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Posted 2012-April-30, 09:02
Pass
The problem with this is obvious: we may miss a game.
But it seems unlikely that E is psyching, so partner rates to be weak.....and rho will be sitting over partner's meagre values, so we have dummy entry problems and our hand won't play as well as most 20 counts, even with the spade hook seemingly marked onside.
In addition, they may be running the diamond suit in our most likely game.
I'm not sure what Phil means when he suggests that LHO is rarely passing (tho I agree with that suggestion): I don't see how we are going to be able to enter the auction later if we pass now. I suppose I could later bid 2♠, and probably would if they reach 2♦.
The problem with this is obvious: we may miss a game.
But it seems unlikely that E is psyching, so partner rates to be weak.....and rho will be sitting over partner's meagre values, so we have dummy entry problems and our hand won't play as well as most 20 counts, even with the spade hook seemingly marked onside.
In addition, they may be running the diamond suit in our most likely game.
I'm not sure what Phil means when he suggests that LHO is rarely passing (tho I agree with that suggestion): I don't see how we are going to be able to enter the auction later if we pass now. I suppose I could later bid 2♠, and probably would if they reach 2♦.
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#8
- Andy Bowles
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Posted 2012-April-30, 10:49
mikeh, on 2012-April-30, 09:02, said:
I don't see how we are going to be able to enter the auction later if we pass now. I suppose I could later bid 2♠, and probably would if they reach 2♦.
If it went
1♠-pass-1NT-pass
2♦
you could enter the auction with a double.
2♦
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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Posted 2012-May-02, 18:59
dkham, on 2012-April-30, 07:09, said:
Double then bid 2NT.
Only rebidding 2NT if partner bids 2♦.
A perfection of means, and confusion of aims, seems to be our main problem Albert Einstein
#10
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Posted 2012-May-02, 23:33
I think pass is obvious but I've seen a lot of hands recently where bidding is a big winner (you have a lot of points but they pick off your long suit).
#11
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Posted 2012-May-03, 01:05
I'd double & bid 2N. It's not like partner will ever be able to reopen with a double if this comes back around, and I'm likely to be sitting there at 50 a trick without any idea whether we can make anything if I pass now. And I think that worrying about the singleton diamond is pointless - they've bid spades, partner knows that I might be off-shape in a minor if I rebid NT, sometimes a man has to do what a man has to do.
Chris Gibson
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