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Is The Ruling Correct?

#1 User is offline   eagles123 

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Posted 2013-July-15, 06:54

This happened a couple of weeks ago. It was matchpoints.

What happened was on the last round we were E/W and North opened 1NT and it was passed out, result -1. When South hit the table he immediatley said "sorry i forgot to transfer", so the standard contract would have been 2H by North. When we put the result in though we had a really low percentage, as the hands had been muddled up as we had the N/S cards and they had ours. All the other tables were in 2H by E either making exactly or plus 1. So our 1NT -1 would have been a top had the cards been in the right place if you see what I mean?

We asked the director at the end to have a look as the result made no sense whatsoever and he confirmed the cards had been put back in the wrong slots, before promptly giving 50% to both sides. I couldn't be bothered to argue as we had had a fairly bad day anyway and it wouldn't have made much difference, but felt a little annoyed that we had done better than any other defenders and only got 50%. So my question is, was the ruling correct or should we have got a higher percentage?

Sorry if this doesn't make sense!

Eagles
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#2 User is offline   gordontd 

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Posted 2013-July-15, 07:12

If the hand was misboarded you can't compare your defence with that of the other pairs - they were defending a different hand. If the misboarding was not your fault, you should have got AV+ (60%).
Gordon Rainsford
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#3 User is online   blackshoe 

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Posted 2013-July-15, 07:49

If the cards had been in the right place you wouldn't have been defending 1NT.
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#4 User is offline   helene_t 

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Posted 2013-July-15, 08:01

if NS get the EW cards and v/v because you were sitting in the wrong direction or turned the board 90 degrees the result should stand, with you scored in the NS line for that board.

but it sounds like what happened was that the cards were in thw wrong slots in the board so that dealer and vulnerability were consistent with you being EW while the cards consistent with you being NS. I that case you should both get 60% as Gordon says.
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#5 User is offline   chrism 

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Posted 2013-July-15, 09:18

The director needs to verify that the board was indeed misboarded, and if so, when. It sounds as if it was at the end of the round before last, but maybe it was a round or two earlier. Once that determination is made, then the "fouled board" formula approved by your sponsoring organization needs to be applied to each group of tables that played the same instance of the board (and maybe a PP considered for the pairs at the table where the foul occurred).

The WBF and the ACBL both use the same formula;I don't now about other organizations. This has special cases for groups of 1, 2 or 3 tables and a general formula beyond that:

If a single table played an instance of the board, as you believe, then the above posters are correct that each pair gets 60% of a top.
If two tables, then the better score in each direction gets 65%, the worse 55% (or 60% each if tied).
If three tables, the scores are 70%, 60% and 50% respectively.
Beyond three tables, the matchpoints awarded to a group playing the same version of the board are
(NxS)/n + (N-n)/2n
where
N=number of scores on the board (in all groups)
S=matchpoint score within this group
n=number of scores within this group
This formula would be applied to all the tables that played the original version of the board prior to fouling.
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#6 User is offline   RMB1 

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Posted 2013-July-15, 10:53

"UK near London" says the OP's profile, so let's guess EBU.

The EBU Neubergs (applies the formula above / factors the frequencies) even for small numbers of boards (greater than one) in a subfield.

This post has been edited by RMB1: 2013-July-15, 11:28

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#7 User is offline   jeffford76 

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Posted 2013-July-15, 11:07

View PostRMB1, on 2013-July-15, 10:53, said:

The EBU Neubergs (applies the formula above / factors the frequencies) even for small numbers of boards in a subfield.


How does this work when only one table plays the board?
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#8 User is online   blackshoe 

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Posted 2013-July-15, 11:11

I don't think it does, since in that case the number S is undefined. I suspect the EBU knows that, and does the same thing the WBF and ACBL do: both sides get Avg+.
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#9 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2013-July-15, 13:51

assigning 50% is penalizing non offending players. In this case both.
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#10 User is offline   pran 

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Posted 2013-July-15, 17:16

View Postjeffford76, on 2013-July-15, 11:07, said:

How does this work when only one table plays the board?

Neubergs formula applies to each group containing at least two results. In each group containing only one result both sides receive Ave+
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