[ahydra]

To those who play (not in a strong-minor system) 1m-2NT as a GF raise, or similar, and 1m-2m as inverted - how do you distinguish when to use one over the other?

Thanks,

ahydra

[dake50]

I'm guessing scattered stops/tenaces bids 2Nt; missing stops tries 2m.

[Kungsgeten]

Some people who I've seen use 1m-2m as mostly seeking to play NT. 1m-2NT shows some slam interest, perhaps 15+ hcp and some nice distribution (probably shortness somewhere). I think they play that 1m-2NT asks for shortness and min/max.

I guess 1m-2m could be used as invitational, non-forcing, while 1m-2NT is gaming forcing..

[Cyberyeti]

We play inverted minors, but use 2N as one of the weak raises, we split the weak shapely raises between 2N/3♣. This seems to work well playing a 4 card club.

I wonder if there's any merit in 2m as an inverted raise with 4M and 2N without.

[JmBrPotter]

Cyberyeti, on 2013-October-03, 16:48, said:

We play inverted minors, but use 2N as one of the weak raises, we split the weak shapely raises between 2N/3♣. This seems to work well playing a 4 card club.

I wonder if there's any merit in 2m as an inverted raise with 4M and 2N without.

When partner and I played K-S, we systemically used inverted minor raises. Our 1m-(Pass)-2m sequence explicitly denied both 4 ♥ cards and 4 ♠ cards. We did not think of this neat idea {using 1m-(Pass)-2NT as a GF raise of the minor}, but our style would have been for "1m-(Pass)-2m" to suggest hunting for a 3NT contract (more room to show/seek stoppers) and for "1m-(Pass)-2NT" to suggest seeking a 5m, 6m, or 7m contract (lots of room below game for a slam dialogue).

[FrancesHinden]

We play 1C - 2NT as 15+ balanced, no 4-card major (so 3334, (332)5, (32)44). Opener bids 3NT a weak NT without 4 clubs (1C is 2+ clubs), 3C as (usually) a weak NT with 4+ clubs and 3 new suit shortage.
1C - 2C is all other invitational+ hands with a club fit and either no major or, if it has a major, also 5+ clubs and slam interest opposite a weak NT.
1C - 3NT is the same shape(s) but 12-15.

We introduced the 2NT response to 1C because (i) we found that we were taking too many bids to get to 3NT with a balanced 16 opposite a balanced 12 and opponents got to double some of the relay bids for the lead and (ii) 15-17 balanced in particular can be a hard range to tell partner about without going past 3NT. Responder can still choose to make an inverted raise with, say, xx AKx Axx KQJxx if it obvious that partner should declare NT and/or the hand is hugely slam suitable.

We play 1D - 2NT as a very weak diamond raise as this is more useful opposite a genuine (4+ cards) 1D opening.

[FrancesHinden]

Cyberyeti, on 2013-October-03, 16:48, said:

I wonder if there's any merit in 2m as an inverted raise with 4M and 2N without.

Depending on whether or not 2N is forcing, this leaves you with no way to show either an invitational hand without a 4-card major or a forcing hand similarly. Playing a natural club opening you can retreat to 3C, but you'll look a bit silly playing in 3C instead of 2NT particularly at matchpoints.