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rebid 1S or 1NT? rebidding problem

#1 User is offline   dragon11 

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Posted 2005-June-08, 03:24

I hold this hand,how do I rebid?


west north east south(me)
    P  P  1C
 p  1H  P 1S/1NT?

tell me pls.


wayne.
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#2 User is offline   Walddk 

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Posted 2005-June-08, 03:44

Everything is a matter of agreement, but my rebid is 1NT. I bypass a major (sometimes even two) to show 12-14 balanced.

Advantages:
1. Partner knows I have a balanced hand if I rebid 1NT, and if he is strong enough (at least invitational values) he can check back for a possible major suit fit.

2. If I rebid 1MA, partner knows I am unbalanced (5-4, maybe 6-4 or some 4441 patterns), but always unbalanced.

Disadvantage:
You may miss a partial in a major suit when responder is not strong enough to bid on over 1NT.

Roland
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#3 User is offline   FrancesHinden 

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Posted 2005-June-08, 03:56

Whatever you and your partner have agreed is the correct rebid on this hand.
There is no "standard" answer, I believe.

English 5CM players all rebid (or open) 1NT.
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#4 User is offline   microcap 

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Posted 2005-June-08, 04:10

I like questions like this that seem simple and come up a lot but offer a bunch of difficult choices. Can I cast a vote for option 3, which is PASS! Partner is a passed hand, and you have a 12 point hand that I would pass in 1st and 2nd position [And there are days when I would pass this in 3rd hand!]. So I don't see missing game as possible. Pass wins anytime partner has 5 or more hearts. The only time it loses to spades is win partner is exactly 4-4. As to NT, you have no spots and no 5 card suit, and what values you do have are valuable in suit play. So my best guess is that one plays no worse than 1NT most of the time. It also has the singular virtue of telling your partner that you have utter squadoosh, and partner will not be tempted to invite 2NT with 11-12 points.
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#5 User is offline   helene_t 

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Posted 2005-June-08, 04:20

I would certainly bid 1NT with this hand. A more controversial issue is if you should rebid 1NT with all ballanced hands, or if you are allowed to bid 1 with some ballanced hands, e.g. in order to right-side a 3NT contract.

A lot can be said about the pros and cons of both approaches, and it also depends on you agreements about the meaning of 1 (limmited to 17 HCPs?) and your agreements about partner's 1 (could he have bypassed a longer diamond suit?). Some would bid 1NT at IMPs and 1 at matchpoints, on the basis of the idea that at matchpoints 1 or 2 may be the best part-score and you are not so interested in showing a five-card clubs.

If 1NT denies a four-card spades, the opps can use that information when defending. I think that the cases for bidding 1NT with all ballanced hands are stronger. Just my opinion.
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#6 User is offline   mr1303 

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Posted 2005-June-08, 04:34

I'll pass this every time, since partner didn't open in 1st/2nd. I don't want him to make a game try, since we won't make one.

However, in 1st/2nd if I opened, I'll bid 1NT. I don't want to play in a 3-2 fit if partner puts me back to 2C
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#7 User is offline   P_Marlowe 

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Posted 2005-June-08, 04:53

Hi

1S.

It's just a matter of partnership aggrement.

One of the problems with 1 NT is, that your
partner may correct to 2C feeling that you
promised a 4 card suit.
And this contract may play better than 1 NT,
no big deal in MP, but playing IMP's, you look for
the safer contract.
He may even compete to 3C in case the opps
enter the bidding with diamonds.

With kind regards
Marlowe
With kind regards
Uwe Gebhardt (P_Marlowe)
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#8 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2005-June-08, 04:55

Std rebid on natural methods is 1 I think, you can bypass it because of the flat thing, and to help partner rebid his 5, but I think it is not good in the long run.
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#9 User is offline   dragon11 

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Posted 2005-June-08, 05:12

thank all for your replies(I especially agree with Roland).

but the whole things as follow:

Scoring: IMP




west north east south(me)
    P  P  1C
 p  1H  P  1NT
 P  2NT P   P
 P

In fact, we almost lost a 4H/4S game.who is wrong here?

thank again

wayne
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#10 User is offline   inquiry 

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Posted 2005-June-08, 05:35

1NT for me
--Ben--

#11 User is offline   mr1303 

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Posted 2005-June-08, 06:10

Quote

One of the problems with 1 NT is, that your
partner may correct to 2C feeling that you
promised a 4 card suit.
And this contract may play better than 1 NT,
no big deal in MP, but playing IMP's, you look for
the safer contract.
He may even compete to 3C in case the opps
enter the bidding with diamonds.


Why might this not happen if you bid 1S?

If anything I think the risk is greater if you bid 1S, since a lot of people play that this shows an unbalanced hand.
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#12 User is offline   microcap 

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Posted 2005-June-08, 06:56

I don't think 4 is ever making on this layout--2 and 2 losers. 4 has much better chances though it could go down on best defense-- But one of the other virtues of pass is that opps will balance in many cases--probably 2 here for instance. Now there are a variety of ways for both of you to get back in the auction with less risk as you are both limited.
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#13 User is offline   Walddk 

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Posted 2005-June-08, 07:11


It's nice to be important, but it's more important to be nice
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#14 User is offline   P_Marlowe 

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Posted 2005-June-08, 07:16

mr1303, on Jun 8 2005, 07:10 AM, said:

Quote

One of the problems with 1 NT is, that your
partner may correct to 2C feeling that you
promised a 4 card suit.
And this contract may play better than 1 NT,
no big deal in MP, but playing IMP's, you look for
the safer contract.
He may even compete to 3C in case the opps
enter the bidding with diamonds.


Why might this not happen if you bid 1S?

If anything I think the risk is greater if you bid 1S, since a lot of people play that this shows an unbalanced hand.

Hi,

as I said, this depends on your partnership
agreements.
I dont play walsh, so 1S does not promises
an unbal. opener for me.

With kind regards
Marlowe
With kind regards
Uwe Gebhardt (P_Marlowe)
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#15 User is offline   Walddk 

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Posted 2005-June-08, 07:19

P_Marlowe, on Jun 8 2005, 08:16 AM, said:

I dont play walsh, so 1S does not promises
an unbal. opener for me.

I don't play Walsh with all partners, but I still play 1x - 1y ; 1MA as an unbalanced hand.

Roland
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#16 User is offline   Free 

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Posted 2005-June-08, 07:45

I also prefer 1NT rebids, even with a 4432 distribution. As Roland said, from the moment partner is invitational or stronger we won't miss the fit tnx to checkback.

Now, for what's wrong in your auction, imo it's pretty clear that the 2NT bid is completely wrong. Partner already passed, so he can even reverse 2 to show his hand. But imo it's still best to use 2 Checkback in these situations, you can show your hand very nicely!
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#17 User is offline   toothbrush 

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Posted 2005-June-08, 08:02

I would pass on 1 and hope opps bid ! No game possibilities imo, so stay as low as possible. For 1NT you need a good suit somewhere and you have bullshit (only 2tricks in your hand).
The north hand is an opening worth i believe, but that's also partnership-agreement. If you're used to pass with such strong hands as north I believe south has to bid once more and I think 1 is the correct bid then.
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#18 User is offline   FrancesHinden 

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Posted 2005-June-08, 08:35

You don't need any sophisticated methods such as NMF or checkback or 2-way checkback. The problem is that partner apparently didn't think you could have 4 spades for the 1NT rebid, or he would simply have bid 2S over 1NT (which you could have passed if you wanted, as he is a passed hand)
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#19 User is offline   mike777 

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Posted 2005-June-08, 08:54

Pass 1H
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#20 User is offline   HeartA 

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Posted 2005-June-08, 10:32

1NT.

As for the hand, the bidding could go:

1C-1H
1N-2C (xyz)
2H(S)-...
2H or 2S depends on agreement. I prefer 2H though.
Senshu
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