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Multi Mishap ATB

#1 User is offline   TWO4BRIDGE 

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Posted 2011-January-16, 10:08

IMPs
2D! = weak 2H or 2S or strong 2NT


3HX-3 went for - 10.4 IMPs whereas 3S-1 was -0.8 or in some cases 3S made with imperfect defense for + 3.8

Who's To Blame ( WTB , aka ATB ) ?

( N/S allows 4-of-other-Major for their Multi weak-2 bids ).
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#2 User is offline   mtvesuvius 

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Posted 2011-January-16, 10:11

Stupid double post again :/
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#3 User is offline   mtvesuvius 

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Posted 2011-January-16, 10:12

North! 3 should still be P/C, this situation doesn't change anything. I have a general rule when playing multi, which is that when in doubt, a bid of a major is P/C until opener's suit is known. Therefore, 3 should still be P/C... The opponent's bidding was weird as well, doubling 3 seems a bit off...

If you're so worried about missing a 4-4 fit here, don't open 2 with those hands.
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#4 User is offline   dake50 

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Posted 2011-January-16, 10:30

Too bad opponents are short a trick in 3NT and they see it.
Their 'pick-a-minor' escape works.
Was 3H 'do you have 4xH also?'? Essentially P/C.
Or 'I want to play 3H, do you not misfit?'
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#5 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2011-January-16, 12:08

View Postmtvesuvius, on 2011-January-16, 10:12, said:

North! 3 should still be P/C, this situation doesn't change anything. I have a general rule when playing multi, which is that when in doubt, a bid of a major is P/C until opener's suit is known. Therefore, 3 should still be P/C...

But opener's suit is known: 2 said "If you have hearts, I want you to bid (at least) 3." North passed over 2NT, so he has spades.
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#6 User is offline   TWO4BRIDGE 

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Posted 2011-January-16, 12:19

View Postdake50, on 2011-January-16, 10:30, said:


Was 3H 'do you have 4xH also?' ? Essentially P/C.
Or 'I want to play 3H, do you not misfit?'


Good questions....I don't know... ( I was not at the table ) .

So far, Pass/Correct makes the most sense since South still doesn't know North's long Major.

But I think North thought South had 5 cards Hts and short Sp.... perhaps 1 5 2 5.
Don Stenmark
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"imo by far in bridge the least understood concept is how to bid over a jump-shift
( 1M-1NT!-3m-?? )." ....Justin Lall

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#7 User is offline   nigel_k 

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Posted 2011-January-16, 13:22

I don't like North's hand for a weak two, even if you open them aggressively. The ODR is just too far from normal. Partner can also see the vulnerability and will often bid too much. South's decision to compete over 3 is ok but marginal.

However the decisive point is the one made by gnasher, that North's failure to bid 3 over 2NT confirms spades. This has to be correct unless you have a specific agreement to the contrary. From North's point of view it does seem odd that South wants to compete to three level in hearts, possibly opposite a void, after bidding 2 and doubling 3. I certainly hope South wouldn't do this with a 1525 shape as was suggested. But North isn't really being consulted here and should just pass.

South 100%.
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#8 User is offline   OleBerg 

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Posted 2011-January-16, 13:23

View Postgnasher, on 2011-January-16, 12:08, said:

But opener's suit is known: 2 said "If you have hearts, I want you to bid (at least) 3." North passed over 2NT, so he has spades.


Agree. And since South bid a non-forcing 2 at his first turn, instead of 2, he doesn't have a good enough suit to insist on, but AJx should be excellent support.

Even if North can have 4, I would still say that catering to a 5-3 fit should be much more importent.

Edit: So I disagree that North isn't consulted. With a singleton, he should have moved to 3
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We should always assume 2/1 unless otherwise stated, because:

- If the original poster didn't bother to state his system, that means that he thinks it's obvious what he's playing. The only people who think this are 2/1 players.


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#9 User is offline   MrAce 

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Posted 2011-January-16, 16:35

I blame south, he knows pd can't have weak 2.
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#10 User is offline   Hanoi5 

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Posted 2011-January-16, 16:51

I blame South since I don't understand why 3 could be P/C. But if it were, then North :lol:

 wyman, on 2012-May-04, 09:48, said:

Also, he rates to not have a heart void when he leads the 3.


 rbforster, on 2012-May-20, 21:04, said:

Besides playing for fun, most people also like to play bridge to win


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#11 User is offline   gszeszycki 

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Posted 2011-January-16, 23:46

gnasher points out that when N passed over 2N he shows spades. I wonder what the purpose of the x over 3c was.
clubs (and spades) are the only contracts I would have any interest in defending and it is far too easy for opps
to still run to safety (Your honor I would like to enter this hand as exhibit a). I would start with 100% blame to S for that x of 3c ---if I were going to do anything over 3c it would be to bid 3s (now that I know we have no heart fit) as a blockade bid.

Let us assume the x of 3c is acceptable to all and we find ourselves in balancing seat after lho bids 3d-----risk vs reward leads us to the conclusion that pass is best. odds of making 3s (or 3h) are slim at best -- remember that N knows you have an invitational hand in hearts and a sign off in spades yet they took no action over 3d because they could do nothing useful. Thus we can conclude that if N had 4 hearts and game interest they would have bid 3h over 3d. We do not know opps cannot make 3n let us be happy they are in 3d and hope we can set it. Bidding 3h by south another terrible error since it is impossible for N to have a 4 card heart suit and anything much above a minimum.
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#12 User is offline   dboxley 

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Posted 2011-January-17, 01:22

gnasher is correct, 100% to south
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#13 User is offline   nige1 

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Posted 2011-January-17, 02:28

View PostTWO4BRIDGE, on 2011-January-16, 10:08, said:

IMPs
2D! = weak 2H or 2S or strong 2NT
3HX-3 went for - 10.4 IMPs whereas 3S-1 was -0.8 or in some cases 3S made with imperfect defense for + 3.8
Who's To Blame ( WTB , aka ATB ) ?
( N/S allows 4-of-other-Major for their Multi weak-2 bids ).

View Postmtvesuvius, on 2011-January-16, 10:12, said:

North! 3 should still be P/C, this situation doesn't change anything. I have a general rule when playing multi, which is that when in doubt, a bid of a major is P/C until opener's suit is known. Therefore, 3 should still be P/C... The opponent's bidding was weird as well, doubling 3 seems a bit off... If you're so worried about missing a 4-4 fit here, don't open 2 with those hands.

View Postgnasher, on 2011-January-16, 12:08, said:

But opener's suit is known: 2 said "If you have hearts, I want you to bid (at least) 3." North passed over 2NT, so he has spades.
Agree with gnasher that North has shown because with he should bid them over 2N. Hence South is the main culprit.
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#14 User is offline   Free 

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Posted 2011-January-17, 06:59

I don't like the 2 opening, but that's a matter of style and it's hardly relevant for assigning the blame. For me South gets 100% of the blame. He should either not play multi, or learn how to play it decently.

2 forces opener to bid something if he has . So passing 2NT means opener has . That makes 3 natural and suggestion to play, probably with doubleton as a backup suit. North with Axx support has an obvious pass over this.

Playing P/C when the suit is already known is ridiculous.
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#15 User is offline   mtvesuvius 

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Posted 2011-January-17, 09:29

Guess I need to revisit my multi methods :)

Unfortunately I don't get too many chances to practice them :/

I'm still not completely convinced that North is obligated to bid 3 if he had hearts... I think the 2N call should make that optional...

Anyway, pre-empting with the north hand is questionable at best anyway, especially with AJx in the other major.
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#16 User is offline   Free 

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Posted 2011-January-17, 13:14

View Postmtvesuvius, on 2011-January-17, 09:29, said:

I'm still not completely convinced that North is obligated to bid 3 if he had hearts... I think the 2N call should make that optional...

Well, I guess it's just easier to play it this way. Responder already showed the willingness to play at least 3, so when opps intervene you get some kind of obligation to bid 3 as opener. Also note that this is not a forcing pass situation, so you might not get a second chance to show your suit. You've created ambiguity by opening 2, partner bid constructively by bidding 2, so it's time to tell partner what you have.
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#17 User is offline   whereagles 

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Posted 2011-January-18, 13:06

I blame lack of agreements. Back when I played multi, I had this definition:

2 2
2 3 <-- I really have hearts. Pls pass.
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#18 User is offline   MrAce 

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Posted 2011-January-18, 20:21

View Postwhereagles, on 2011-January-18, 13:06, said:

I blame lack of agreements. Back when I played multi, I had this definition:

2 2
2 3 <-- I really have hearts. Pls pass.



Thats still very common, but not with intention of a sign off. This is used when u have a natural 3 bid if your pd opened weak 2 . A good hand with 6+ suit. Where u dont wanna bid 2 and play there if a game or even a slam is possible in suit. Some paranoids may think this has the risk of playing 2 when we have 6-6 , it just won't happen. But even if you encounter 1 in your lifetime, just pay off for it once and leave the rest of your life with this useful treatment.

I dont see much of a benefit in playing it as a rescue bid from an undoubled 2 to be honest. I think 3 should be either forcing or at least invitational vs a fit. Not an absolute sign off.
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#19 User is offline   OleBerg 

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Posted 2011-January-19, 02:09

Slightly highjacking:

If you play multi, consider this treatment:

2 - 4

4 = Please transfer to your suit. This may be just to play, or to go towards slam, but it sends the important signal: "We are going to play in your suit." Rightsides contract, makes slamexploration easier and prevents mishaps if next hand compete.

Remember to agree if (when) it sets up a force.

It also frees 4 and 4 to show a good hand that doesn't care for openers suit.
_____________________________________

Do not underestimate the power of the dark side. Or the ninth trumph.

Best Regards Ole Berg

_____________________________________

We should always assume 2/1 unless otherwise stated, because:

- If the original poster didn't bother to state his system, that means that he thinks it's obvious what he's playing. The only people who think this are 2/1 players.


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#20 User is offline   Free 

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Posted 2011-January-19, 04:01

View PostOleBerg, on 2011-January-19, 02:09, said:

Slightly highjacking:

If you play multi, consider this treatment:

2 - 4

4 = Please transfer to your suit. This may be just to play, or to go towards slam, but it sends the important signal: "We are going to play in your suit." Rightsides contract, makes slamexploration easier and prevents mishaps if next hand compete.

Remember to agree if (when) it sets up a force.

It also frees 4 and 4 to show a good hand that doesn't care for openers suit.

Also play 2-4 as "bid your suit". This way you can let opener declare as well, in case you don't have anything to rightside.
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