IMPs
1♦ promised five cards unless 4=4=4=1.
4♥ agreed diamonds and showed a void.
4♠ and 5♣ would be cue-bids (up the line); 4NT would be Keycard.
What would you do?
This post has been edited by gnasher: 2011-July-25, 16:19
Posted 2011-July-25, 05:21
This post has been edited by gnasher: 2011-July-25, 16:19
Posted 2011-July-25, 05:45
gnasher, on 2011-July-25, 05:21, said:
Posted 2011-July-25, 05:53
Posted 2011-July-25, 06:15
Posted 2011-July-25, 06:28
Posted 2011-July-25, 06:41
Quote
Quote
Quote
Posted 2011-July-25, 06:57
Posted 2011-July-25, 07:06
Posted 2011-July-25, 08:08
Posted 2011-July-25, 09:55
Posted 2011-July-25, 10:48
Phil, on 2011-July-25, 09:55, said:
Posted 2011-July-25, 10:53
han, on 2011-July-25, 07:06, said:
Posted 2011-July-25, 11:07
hrothgar, on 2011-July-25, 10:53, said:
Posted 2011-July-25, 12:16
aguahombre, on 2011-July-25, 11:07, said:
Posted 2011-July-25, 12:36
Posted 2011-July-25, 14:07
Posted 2011-July-25, 15:21
Phil, on 2011-July-25, 12:16, said:
Posted 2011-July-25, 16:20
MrAce, on 2011-July-25, 14:07, said:
IMO 5♣ = 10, 6♦ = 9, 4N = 8, 4♠ = 6, 5♦ = 5.
In spite of your poor trumps and massive duplication, you still have a bit in hand.
BTW, gnasher, for the last quiz you gave us, you did not reveal partner's hand or what would have worked, in practice.
Philosophers like matmat may argue that when assessing the quality of a bid, what works is not necessarily correct (and vice versa) but we result-merchants still relish our pound of flesh.