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You have established a clear fit but competition didn't allow RKC

#1 User is offline   kgr 

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Posted 2012-October-14, 06:34

Suppose you have established a clear fit, but competition didn't allow RKC.
Examples:
2C-(2D)-P-(4D)
5D/strong with both majors-5H
?

1S-(2D)-2NT/fit and GF-(5D)
?

1S-(2D)-4D/splinter-(5D)
?

3D/GF both majors-(5D)-5H-(P)
?

Q: If you wanted an easy agreement in a one-sentence-rule then what is best?:
- 1-over-1 RKC & 5NT asking extras
- 1-over-1 RKC & 5NT Josephine
- 1-over-1 RKC if already above 5M; otherwise it simply asks extras and then 5NT is RKC
- all natural and cues, 5NT RKC
...and what actual agreements do you have?

Thanks,
Koen
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#2 User is offline   FrancesHinden 

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Posted 2012-October-14, 11:49

One sentence answer: you have more things to worry about than whether you have enough keycards for slam, in particular whether you have enough tricks for slam. (Slams sometimes make with insufficient keycards, they never make with insufficient tricks.)

Take your sample auctions:
on the first, if I didn't know what to do after 5D-5H I wouldn't have bid it (I'd play 5NT as a general grand try here but I doubt it would come up). I could have passed over 4D to see what partner did next.

On all the others I'd just use 5NT to ask for top trump honours and everything else as a cue bid looking for something helpful opposite.
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#3 User is offline   PhilKing 

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Posted 2012-October-14, 13:00

I auction 1, I can't imagine bidding 5 and then passing five of a major for the reasons Frances gave. Partner can cue a minor suit trick or jump to a grandee with a top major card and a decent fit imo. Jumping to 6M would show about Qxxx and out. 5M should be forcing, I guess.

On auctions 2, 3 and 4 I play 5M+1 as Sand Wedge RKCB. Perhaps it applies in auction 1 as well, but my meta agreement is that 5 is natural.

This post has been edited by PhilKing: 2012-October-14, 15:53

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#4 User is offline   kgr 

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Posted 2012-October-14, 15:24

View PostPhilKing, on 2012-October-14, 13:00, said:

Sand Wedge RKCB.
Google doesn't translate it. This means the same as simple?
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#5 User is offline   kgr 

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Posted 2012-October-14, 15:27

View PostFrancesHinden, on 2012-October-14, 11:49, said:

One sentence answer: you have more things to worry about than whether you have enough keycards for slam, in particular whether you have enough tricks for slam. (Slams sometimes make with insufficient keycards, they never make with insufficient tricks.)

Take your sample auctions:
on the first, if I didn't know what to do after 5D-5H I wouldn't have bid it (I'd play 5NT as a general grand try here but I doubt it would come up). I could have passed over 4D to see what partner did next.

On all the others I'd just use 5NT to ask for top trump honours and everything else as a cue bid looking for something helpful opposite.

Isn't it better to use 5M+1 as RKCB

View PostPhilKing, on 2012-October-14, 13:00, said:

I auction 1, I can't imagine bidding 5 and then passing five of a major for the reasons Frances gave. Partner can cue a minor suit trick or jump to a grandee with a top major card and a decent fit imo. Jumping to 6M would show about Qxxx and out.

On auctions 2, 3 and 4 I play 5M+1 as Sand Wedge RKCB.

Isn't it better to use 5NT as Josephine.

I'm trying to make a decision :)
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#6 User is offline   PhilKing 

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Posted 2012-October-14, 15:33

View Postkgr, on 2012-October-14, 15:24, said:

Google doesn't translate it. This means the same as simple?


Google knows next to nothing about how to keycard when you have gone past 4NT.

Yep it's the same.

Agreement is: "If cue bidding or preemption has taken us past RKCB, 5 of agreed suit +1 is RKCB."
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