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What would you rule? ACBL Sectional hand

#1 User is offline   TylerE 

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Posted 2013-April-15, 12:51

ACBL Sectional


After 3, South asked if pass over 3 showed anything special, and was told "0-4, when we remember it"

South called the director to reserve rights after dummy hit.

Result on the hand was 4-1, on less than stellar declarer play, so no ruling was sought.

Thoughts?
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#2 User is offline   CSGibson 

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Posted 2013-April-15, 13:08

West has a clear raise, no LA, and I don't see any damage from potential MI, either. Result stands. If South is at all experienced, he should be ashamed for feeling the need to call the director when he saw dummy, IMO.
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#3 User is online   Cyberyeti 

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Posted 2013-April-15, 13:12

View PostCSGibson, on 2013-April-15, 13:08, said:

West has a clear raise, no LA, and I don't see any damage from potential MI, either. Result stands. If South is at all experienced, he should be ashamed for feeling the need to call the director when he saw dummy, IMO.

Isn't 3 just offering up 800 if he's really expecting 0-4, it looks like an attempt to take into account that partner might have forgotten. I think the director call is reasonable.
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#4 User is offline   CSGibson 

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Posted 2013-April-15, 13:20

View PostCyberyeti, on 2013-April-15, 13:12, said:

Isn't 3 just offering up 800 if he's really expecting 0-4, it looks like an attempt to take into account that partner might have forgotten. I think the director call is reasonable.


There is no alleged break in tempo, so 3 doesn't appear to be an issue, its not like the partnership is acting on UI at this point, as presented. Additionally, I suspect E-W not to be a strong pair based on the butchering of the contract and the decision to bid 3 instead of doubling.
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#5 User is offline   TylerE 

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Posted 2013-April-15, 13:35

View PostCSGibson, on 2013-April-15, 13:08, said:

West has a clear raise, no LA, and I don't see any damage from potential MI, either. Result stands. If South is at all experienced, he should be ashamed for feeling the need to call the director when he saw dummy, IMO.


The director call was on the basis of West waking up after hearing the explanation.
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#6 User is online   Cyberyeti 

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Posted 2013-April-15, 13:46

View PostTylerE, on 2013-April-15, 13:35, said:

The director call was on the basis of West waking up after hearing the explanation.

I don't think that matters, the director will investigate everything once called. The raise is absolutely routine.

But E seems to know his partner has previous for forgetting the system. In the UK we climb on fielded misbids more or less as if they were fielded psyches which may not be the same in the US, but climbing back in on what looks like a working 14 count opposite 0-4 is suspicious even without any possible body language at explanation time.
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#7 User is offline   jeffford76 

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Posted 2013-April-15, 13:48

View PostCSGibson, on 2013-April-15, 13:08, said:

West has a clear raise, no LA, and I don't see any damage from potential MI, either. Result stands. If South is at all experienced, he should be ashamed for feeling the need to call the director when he saw dummy, IMO.


I think this is a huge overstatement. When dummy has UI, and their hand doesn't match what their partner said, it's perfectly reasonable to call the director. It's the director's job to see if the raise is clear, not the player, who probably wants to get on to defending the hand, not waste energy thinking about what is and isn't a LA.

If 4 had made, I would expect the director to ask dummy what they thought their initial pass showed, and what double would have showed. If the player thought their pass showed values, for example, then there might be a problem with the raise.

All that said, I doubt passing would be found to be a LA.
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#8 User is offline   blackshoe 

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Posted 2013-April-15, 15:37

West clearly has UI from East's explanation of the meaning of West's pass, but if he has no LA to bidding 4 there has been no infraction by him.

The question Cyberyeti raised is whether there may be a CPU (that West frequently forgets that he's supposed to double with the hand he has), but I think "when we remember it" obviates that notion, so I don't see an infraction by East either. Perhaps South should have asked for further information about East's caveat.

Result stands.
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#9 User is online   Cyberyeti 

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Posted 2013-April-15, 15:56

View Postblackshoe, on 2013-April-15, 15:37, said:

West clearly has UI from East's explanation of the meaning of West's pass, but if he has no LA to bidding 4 there has been no infraction by him.

The question Cyberyeti raised is whether there may be a CPU (that West frequently forgets that he's supposed to double with the hand he has), but I think "when we remember it" obviates that notion, so I don't see an infraction by East either. Perhaps South should have asked for further information about East's caveat.

Result stands.

Actually it's not really the CPU aspect, it's more the fielded misbid aspect which I suspect doesn't apply as much in the US. Are you really going to enjoy 3 at this vul opposite say xxx, x, Jxxxx, Jxxx ? the only reason to bid is because you think partner has misbid and may have a reasonable hand. You have to wonder if there was any change in facial expression when E said it was 0-4.
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#10 User is offline   sfi 

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Posted 2013-April-15, 16:03

View PostCyberyeti, on 2013-April-15, 13:12, said:

Isn't 3 just offering up 800 if he's really expecting 0-4, it looks like an attempt to take into account that partner might have forgotten. I think the director call is reasonable.


But he's not really expecting 0-4 given the explanation of the pass. And given the explanation, the pass isn't even a misbid. Finally, since the explanation expressly allowed for stronger hands without a clear action, so presumably balanced with no club stopper, there's no reason to suggest a CPU.
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#11 User is offline   RMB1 

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Posted 2013-April-15, 16:12

View PostCyberyeti, on 2013-April-15, 15:56, said:

Actually it's not really the CPU aspect, it's more the fielded misbid aspect ...


I don't really understand, what is the basis for ruling on fielded misbids if it is not evidence of a CPU?
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#12 User is online   Cyberyeti 

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Posted 2013-April-15, 16:36

View PostRMB1, on 2013-April-15, 16:12, said:

I don't really understand, what is the basis for ruling on fielded misbids if it is not evidence of a CPU?

Semantics really, I consider a CPU as more malicious/deliberate than incompetent like this one.
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#13 User is offline   mycroft 

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Posted 2013-April-15, 16:52

Isn't rule 1 of Precision "an 8-count opposite a 1 opener is game"?

So West has no clue about how to make a forcing call; maybe thinks that pass *is* a forcing call at this level (and East either doesn't know that or is on a different (maybe even correct) page).

"I have to raise with my 8 because partner thinks I have 0-4"? No. "I have to raise because I have a fit and a GF hand"? Okay. Is there a stronger call he can make? Maybe. Will it do anything? Probably not.

East has no UI - she can misbid all she wants.

West does have UI, but pass is not an LA if you've ever played Precision before, since about say 1975. South would have a better time convincing me that West, knowing he made a passable call, should be pushing harder given that East didn't pass; at least that way I have to investigate what West thought he was doing with his pass.
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#14 User is offline   barmar 

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Posted 2013-April-16, 05:15

West seems to think his pass is forcing. So ignoring the UI, he doesn't have much more than he's shown with his pass, and raising to game is the appropriate action.

The UI that his pass showed 0-4 suggests that East should be significantly stronger. If West were to make a stronger move, that would be taking advantage of this UI.

#15 User is offline   Vampyr 

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Posted 2013-April-16, 05:28

View Postblackshoe, on 2013-April-15, 15:37, said:

West clearly has UI from East's explanation of the meaning of West's pass, but if he has no LA to bidding 4 there has been no infraction by him.

The question Cyberyeti raised is whether there may be a CPU (that West frequently forgets that he's supposed to double with the hand he has), but I think "when we remember it" obviates that notion, so I don't see an infraction by East either. Perhaps South should have asked for further information about East's caveat.



What kind of further information? Something like "are you going to field it"? East has admitted that West often misbids and has fielded the misbid...perhaps the CPU is no longer C, but the behaviour (and probably the agreement) is not legal.
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#16 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2013-April-16, 06:10

View PostVampyr, on 2013-April-16, 05:28, said:

What kind of further information? Something like "are you going to field it"? East has admitted that West often misbids and has fielded the misbid...perhaps the CPU is no longer C, but the behaviour (and probably the agreement) is not legal.

Which laws have they broken?

The agreement is certainly legal in the ACBL, where you're allowed to play "ARTIFICIAL AND CONVENTIONAL CALLS after strong (15+ HCP), forcing opening bids". It's legal in England too.


... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#17 User is offline   Vampyr 

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Posted 2013-April-16, 06:44

View Postgnasher, on 2013-April-16, 06:10, said:

Which laws have they broken?


The fielded misbid breaks 40C1.

Quote

The agreement is certainly legal in the ACBL, where you're allowed to play "ARTIFICIAL AND CONVENTIONAL CALLS after strong (15+ HCP), forcing opening bids". It's legal in England too.


I don't understand these either/or agreements. Is double 0-4 or 0- ? Surely the agreement has to be one or the other. Or is the agreement 0-4 but you cater for a psyche/misbid? And this is somehow now allowed because you have disclosed that you were doing so? Seriously?

Obviously both 0-4 and 0- should be allowed just about anywhere, but I cannot tell what the regulations say about the actual agreement.
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#18 User is offline   Zelandakh 

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Posted 2013-April-16, 07:01

If the agreeemnt is 0-4 but East knows that West often forgets and thinks it is 8+ then the real agreeement is effectively 0-4 or 8+. I know of no regulation forcing this pass to show a contiguous range.
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#19 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2013-April-16, 07:16

View PostVampyr, on 2013-April-16, 06:44, said:

The fielded misbid breaks 40C1.

In your earlier post you wrote "perhaps the CPU is no longer C, but ..."

I was replying to the part that followed the word "but", which presupposes that their effective understanding is not concealed. If their effective understanding is not concealed, 40C1 is irrelevant.

Quote

I don't understand these either/or agreements. Is double 0-4 or 0- ? Surely the agreement has to be one or the other. Or is the agreement 0-4 but you cater for a psyche/misbid? And this is somehow now allowed because you have disclosed that you were doing so? Seriously?

Obviously both 0-4 and 0- should be allowed just about anywhere, but I cannot tell what the regulations say about the actual agreement.

The effect of West's statement is "Double is 0+, but if he's remembered our written agreement he won't have more than 4." I don't really understand why you think this ought to be disallowed, but plainly it is allowed, because any method is allowed.

This post has been edited by gnasher: 2013-April-16, 07:17

... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#20 User is offline   blackshoe 

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Posted 2013-April-16, 07:57

View PostVampyr, on 2013-April-16, 06:44, said:

The fielded misbid breaks 40C1.

Not when the PU is not C - and East disclosed it with "when we remember".

As to what further question South might ask, how about "what kind of hand does he have when he forgets"?
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