[ahydra]

Partner and I could use some guidance on how high to raise after making a reopening X, following an overaggressive sequence on this hand:

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IMPs, vul vs not. Opps were playing 15-17 NT. East valued his hand as a minimum 3H raise, while West suggests it's a minimum 2H raise (a maximum being about 18-19 HCPs) and his hand is an invite opposite that.

What would you say were the ranges each player should use in this kind of situation? Advancer is forced to bid (unless holding a bucketload of clubs), so I'm imagining something like

1H = 0-8
2H = 9-12
3H = 13-15 (any more and you might well do something initially)

and doubler raises on something like

pass = 9-13
2H = 14-17
3H = 18-20
4H = 21+

since I don't think it makes any sense to pre-empt as you might do in direct seat (by which I mean after (1x)-X-(p)-1M; (something), doubler can raise with 4-card support even with a minimum).

Obviously when partner isn't forced to bid, you need not be so conservative (I believe there's the "transferred king" principle here, where doubler bids as if he has an extra king, and advancer takes a king away). So after (1C)-p-(p)-X; (2C) advancer would use something like

2H = good 7-11
3H = 12-15

and doubler bids accordingly.

Obviously hand evaluation (particularly honour locations sitting under/over the opener) is much more important than beancounting, but it would be helpful to get a rough idea of what each bid/raise shows here.

Thanks,

ahydra

[Kaitlyn S]

 ahydra, on 2016-September-26, 12:23, said:

Partner and I could use some guidance on how high to raise after making a reopening X, following an overaggressive sequence on this hand:

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Because you balance on hands you would not make an initial defensive action on, a typical agreement is for the balancer to pretend he has 3 points more than he has and the advancer to have 3 less.

An example:

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South opens 1S and it comes to East. Whether East would overcall in direct seat is a matter of style (I probably would because I have 7 losers but I'm in theory a point light for what is taught to beginners.)

However, with East "borrowing" 3 of West's points, East has 15 counting length, and not only would overcall, but accept a limit raise.

West has 12 points (surely you can't count the doubleton diamond AND the DQ), typically a limit raise, but since East has used 3 of West's points, West now has 9 and makes a simple raise to 3H. Even with this "15 points" East doesn't want to bid game over a simple raise and a hopeless game is avoided.

Note that if East was making a direct overcall, West would make a limit raise (2S cuebid) and East, without adding anything for balancing, would gladly sign off in 3H.

On your hand, when East borrows 3 points, East has 20 (counting the doubleton club) but may subtract a point or so because the CK rates to be badly placed. A raise to 3 is indicated.

West, subtracting 3 points, only has 4, even counting length, which isn't enough to bid game opposite a raise to 3.

One more thing about balancing - a jump balance of 2NT is not unusual; it shows a hand that will be hard to bid; i.e. 19-21 balanced with a stopper. After borrowing 3 points you'll have 22-24 but that's not easy to bid if you double and partner bids cheaply at the 2 level. Jumping to 2NT immediately lets you get that hand off your chest now.

[jallerton]

 ahydra, on 2016-September-26, 12:23, said:

Partner and I could use some guidance on how high to raise after making a reopening X, following an overaggressive sequence on this hand:

---

IMPs, vul vs not. Opps were playing 15-17 NT. East valued his hand as a minimum 3H raise, while West suggests it's a minimum 2H raise (a maximum being about 18-19 HCPs) and his hand is an invite opposite that.

What would you say were the ranges each player should use in this kind of situation? Advancer is forced to bid (unless holding a bucketload of clubs), so I'm imagining something like

1H = 0-8
2H = 9-12
3H = 13-15 (any more and you might well do something initially)

and doubler raises on something like

pass = 9-13
2H = 14-17
3H = 18-20
4H = 21+

since I don't think it makes any sense to pre-empt as you might do in direct seat (by which I mean after (1x)-X-(p)-1M; (something), doubler can raise with 4-card support even with a minimum).

Obviously when partner isn't forced to bid, you need not be so conservative (I believe there's the "transferred king" principle here, where doubler bids as if he has an extra king, and advancer takes a king away). So after (1C)-p-(p)-X; (2C) advancer would use something like

2H = good 7-11
3H = 12-15

and doubler bids accordingly.

Obviously hand evaluation (particularly honour locations sitting under/over the opener) is much more important than beancounting, but it would be helpful to get a rough idea of what each bid/raise shows here.

Thanks,

ahydra

I prefer 2♥ on the East hand, 2♥ is constructive and should be a wider range than 3♥. The ♣K is of dubious value. If unsure of the strength of 2♥, there's a case for rebidding 1NT, hiding the 4-card support but at least showing the general nature if your hand (balanced, c16-18HCP, i.e. too strong for a 1NT overcall but not enough to overcall 2NT in the passout seat) over to partner and protecting ♣K from the opening lead should partner pass.

[ahydra]

I've ordered Mike Lawrence's "The Complete Book of Balancing in Contract Bridge", which may explain a few things.

We wouldn't ever hide 4-card support. We play balancing 1NT = 11-14 and 2NT = 20-22ish, so agree that the correct call is 1NT if East only had two or three hearts.

ahydra

[Kaitlyn S]

 ahydra, on 2016-September-27, 11:07, said:

I've ordered Mike Lawrence's "The Complete Book of Balancing in Contract Bridge", which may explain a few things.

If Mike Lawrence disagrees with me, he's probably right.

[SteveMoe]

For sure, 3♥ asks the 1♥ bidder to raise to game with a max within range (0-8) or good hand or some unexpressed extras. Should be a 5-loser with 4-card support or better.

I too like 2♥ not 3♥ by the doubler. Would not fault a pass (this 7-loser is a max pass).

[neilkaz]

Vulnerable games are good, but the doubler should content himself with a forward going raise to 2♥ rather than a clear overbid to 3♥.

[rmnka447]

Reopener has 16 HCP of which ♣ K may not be full value with 1 ♣ opened to the left. So I'd also settle for a 2 ♥ raise which is invitational.

Typically, a reopening double shows about an opening hand but may be lighter with good distribution. It suggests that the reopening side has the "balance of the points" and should compete but without a clear cut bid to make. As such, with minimum range opening values, reopener is essentially assuming that advancer has about 9-10 HCPs to get to that "balance". So a minimum bid by advancer can show up to about 10 HCPs. If advancer makes more than a minimum bid, it shows some extras.

So when reopener raises advancer's minimum advancing bid, it is invitational and shows more than minimum opening range values. With the full maximum 9-10 for the initial advancing bid, advancer can accept.

Here, after East raises 1 ♥ to 2 ♥, West should pass.

But if West held instead something like Kxx Q109x xx Axxx, West should accept the invitation.

[Jinksy]

What would 2♣ be after 1♥? I would just play it as a UCB.

[jallerton]

 Jinksy, on 2016-September-28, 17:00, said:

What would 2♣ be after 1♥? I would just play it as a UCB.

2♣ is a cue bid showing a good hand, but cannot promise primary heart support. What would you bid with say a 4=3=4=2 22-count with xx in clubs?