[cherdano]

Scoring: IMP

1♠-2♣
2♥-3♣
3NT-4♣
?

---

At IMP pairs, you open this 10 count as dealer while it still looks nice. 2♣ is 100% natural and forcing to game.

Do you agree so far? What is your plan now? If you bid 4♦, partner will bid 4♠, then what?

Arend

[Walddk]

No, I do not agree with 3NT. Why didn't I bid 3♥ to show 5-5?

Roland

[cherdano]

Walddk, on Jun 7 2005, 05:49 PM, said:

No, I do not agree with 3NT. Why didn't I bid 3♥ to show 5-5?

Roland

Ok, partner still bids 4♣. What now?

Arend

[inquiry]

Arend,

What is the dfference between 1S-3C and 1S-2C?

Ben

[mike777]

cherdano, on Jun 7 2005, 11:50 AM, said:

Walddk, on Jun 7 2005, 05:49 PM, said:

No, I do not agree with 3NT. Why didn't I bid 3♥ to show 5-5?

Roland

Ok, partner still bids 4♣. What now?

Arend

5Clubs

4d is keycard for clubs so that is out.
P has heard me show 5-5 in majors.
P has shown 14 hcp and clubs and no interest in 3nt.

[cherdano]

inquiry, on Jun 7 2005, 05:56 PM, said:

Arend,

What is the dfference between 1S-3C and 1S-2C?

Ben

3♣ would be Bergen. Are you tempted to pass when there was no invitational 3♣ available?

Arend

[scoob]

5♣

[Walddk]

cherdano, on Jun 7 2005, 12:05 PM, said:

Are you tempted to pass when there was no invitational 3♣ available?

Arend

No I'm not. If partner doesn't have a hand that is good enough to force to game, he should have responded 1NT and not 2♣. His 4♣ sets the suit and asks me to cue bid.

Consequently, I would bid 4♦, cue bid, and over his 4♠ cue bid (no heart control), I would bid 6♣. Here is a hand where I would just raise to 5♣:

KQxxx
KQxxx
Jxx
---

His hand in the post should be something like

A
xx
KQx
AKQ10xxx

Finally, you need a specific agreement here. Is 4♣ passable or not? For me it's not. Don't respond 2♣ unless you are 100% certain that you want to force to game, and with a hand that's weaker than the one above, bid 3NT. Example:

A
xx
Kxx
AKJ10xxx

Roland

[Walddk]

Jlall, on Jun 7 2005, 12:14 PM, said:

wow, I think 3N is really dreadful. Anyways, had I bid 3H and pard bid 4C I would now bid 4D. He could have the deck minus the diamond control so I have to show it to him. It is mandatory in that situation.

We should have a game some day, Justin. Agree completely.

Roland

[FrancesHinden]

What's the difference between

1S - 2C
2H - 3C
3any - 4C

and

1S - 2C
2H - 4C ?

To me, the second sequence says clubs are seriously trumps, please cue bid even with a void.

The first is looking for something different (not entirely sure what). I would guess the clubs are not as robust as the second sequence, so all I would do here is raise to 5C.

p.s. I would have rebid 3H last round as well.

[mike777]

His hand in the post should be something like

A
xx
KQx
AKQ10xxx

With the above D holding Partner may have rebid 3nt over 3H or made picture jump of 4clubs over 2H rebid of opener.

We see this issue all time in 2/1. Players think 2/1 means keeping the bidding low (conserving space) with all possible slam hands. More important priority should be describing one's hand, even if that means making a space consuming jump with 4C here.

[HeartA]

4D, to show ♦A. 3NT was completely wrong, only novice would bid like that. If pd's ♣ were good (plus a sure entry), why don't play some level of ♣ contract. If ♣ were not good, where did you find the 9 tricks?

[Double !]

why didn't I rebid 3H?
now in impossible situation, but might as well show the diamond ace, P doesn't need trump support from me on this bidding.
lol, P keeps saying "tell me more", can I pass 5C?
maybe there is some value in playing (no throwing rocks, please) strong jump-shifts. There are just some hands that one needs to be able to "get off one's chest".

[Fluffy]

I might bid 3♦ to show the void .

after 4♣ it looks easy, you have 2 aces, that might be a lot, bid 4♦, and after 4♠ bid 5♥ .

[cherdano]

Okok, I guess I shouldn't have posted this. My (pickup) partner bid 4♦ then passed 4♠...
I had ♠KJ ♥x ♦Qxx ♣AKQJTxxx. 4♠ was not without play, but certainly more difficult than 6♣ (and went down)

I suppose I should have bid 4♣, but I wasnt sure whether this should show this hand type, or an even stronger one.

Arend

[Fluffy]

Yeah and he might answer 6♣: even number fo aces with ♣ void

BTW I saw this bidding from a pro-client pair last month:

1♠-2♣
3♣-4NT
6♦*

Showing even number and ♦void, the pro was of course burning in flames, but curiosly the sponsor wasn't, how could she?. She was just holding:

♠AKQ10xx
♥x
♦-
♣KJ10xxx

[cherdano]

Jlall, on Jun 8 2005, 12:04 AM, said:

after your partner cuebids 4D for you you can just bid blackwood.

I think if he passes 4♠ he might as well pass 4NT -- no seriously, we were playing rkcb 0341 and expected him to rkcb himself with 2 aces, but sign-off with one.

Arend

[MickyB]

My thoughts reading the first few posts were the same as Frances Hinden's - why didn't pard just rebid 4♣ at his 2nd turn? IMO my void indicates that we are likely to have at least one club loser so I'll content myself with 5♣.

And yes, the 3N rebid was horrible.