Would you bid 1nt (a little underbid?) or double first then convert partner's 2♣ to 2nt or just pass 2c?
Balance decision
#1
Posted 2007-July-01, 07:33
Would you bid 1nt (a little underbid?) or double first then convert partner's 2♣ to 2nt or just pass 2c?
#2
Posted 2007-July-01, 07:50
cnszsun, on Jul 1 2007, 04:33 PM, said:
1♦-ps-ps-?
Would you bid 1nt (a little underbid?) or double first then convert partner's 2♣ to 2nt or just pass 2c?
I'm tempted to bid 1♠
#3 Guest_Jlall_*
Posted 2007-July-01, 07:58
#5
Posted 2007-July-01, 10:44
Double and if partner get's to bid 2C I'll bid 2NT.
#6
Posted 2007-July-01, 11:08
Jlall, on Jul 1 2007, 08:58 AM, said:
agreed.
#7
Posted 2007-July-01, 12:50
- hrothgar
#8
Posted 2007-July-01, 12:56
cnszsun, on Jul 1 2007, 08:33 AM, said:
1♦-ps-ps-?
Would you bid 1nt (a little underbid?) or double first then convert partner's 2♣ to 2nt or just pass 2c?
IMO 1N = 10, P = 9. X = 8.
Even in the protective seat, we play this as 15-18 flat with a stop.
I don't like X but if I did and partner bid 2 ♣ then IMO
- P = 10, 2 ♦ = 4, 2 ♥ =3. 2 N =2, 2 ♠ = 1
I dislike 2N no matter what system we play.
#9
Posted 2007-July-01, 13:24
Question, though. I frankly do not know what 1♦-P-P-X-P-2♣-P-2♦ shows, or for that matter 1♣-P-P-X-P-1♦-P-2♣.
In thinking through options, including the fact that pass-out seat has tools like jumps and even 2NT to show various strong hands, it seems that it would be nice for these auctions to show 4441's with Opener's minor.
However, if I were to use that technique, I then think that this specific sequence of 1♦-P-P-X-P-2♣-P-2♦ is unique, in that the correction is a bid of Opener's minor. It seems more utilitarian to have ELC bids all the way up:
1♣-P-P-X-P-1♦-P-1♥ = 4414 (roughly...)
1♣-P-P-X-P-1♥-P-1♠ = 4144
1♣-P-P-X-P-1♠-P-2♣ = 1444
1♦-P-P-X-P-1♥-P-1♠ = 4144
1♦-P-P-X-P-1♠-P-2♣ = 1444
1♦-P-P-X-P-2♣-P-2♦ = 4441
This would seem to solve a world of hurt whenever pass-out seat has 4441 with any short suit (or 5440 with a long minor, or 5431's especially if long in Opener's minor, etc.). I also suspect that this ELC meaning would be far more useful than whatever the ELC call would otherwise mean, and that this gain would outweigh the loss of requiring some other action on the other hands (especially as I have no idea what these calls show, either).
That would solve this problem.
-P.J. Painter.
#10
Posted 2007-July-01, 13:34
Seriously, I think X followed by 2♦ is useful in its normal meaning: 4423 or maybe 4432, typically without a diamond stop.
#11
Posted 2007-July-01, 14:40
foo, on Jul 1 2007, 07:08 PM, said:
Jlall, on Jul 1 2007, 08:58 AM, said:
agreed.
Ditto
Harald
#12
Posted 2007-July-01, 15:08
foo, on Jul 1 2007, 12:08 PM, said:
Jlall, on Jul 1 2007, 08:58 AM, said:
agreed.
Ditto .. neilkaz ..
#13
Posted 2007-July-01, 21:09
Double then pass 2♣ is nullo.
#14
Posted 2007-July-01, 21:35
BebopKid (Bryan Lee Williams)
"I've practiced meditation most of my life. It's better than sitting around doing nothing."
(Tom Sims, from topfive.com)
♦♦♦♦♦♦
#15
Posted 2007-July-01, 23:42
#16
Posted 2007-July-02, 03:57
I have no good bid for this hand, I could lie with 1♥, 1♠, double or direct 2NT (17-19). But if I doubled I would pass 2♣ because 2NT is 20-22.
I like 1♥ the most.
#17
Posted 2007-July-02, 07:29
Fluffy, on Jul 2 2007, 04:57 AM, said:
I have no good bid for this hand, I could lie with 1♥, 1♠, double or direct 2N (17-19). But if I doubled I would pass 2♣ because 2N is 20-22.
I like 1♥ the most.
If you believe Mike Lawrence in _Balancing_, then the direct 2N balance is stronger than the balancing X followed by 2N rebid.
You appear to play them the opposite way from the book.
#18
Posted 2007-July-02, 07:43
Gonzalo, it seems that you play the balancing 1NT overcall as up to 16 pts, right? So then that would be the straightforward call in my opinion. This is a little heavier than what is standard for balancing over 1m in the US.
- hrothgar
#19
Posted 2007-July-02, 08:25
Hannie, on Jul 2 2007, 01:43 PM, said:
Gonzalo, it seems that you play the balancing 1NT overcall as up to 16 pts, right? So then that would be the straightforward call in my opinion. This is a little heavier than what is standard for balancing over 1m in the US.
No, when LHO opens a minor it is X + 1NT = 13-16, but there is no way I will bid 1NT here because I would raise partner's major instead.
1NT is played as 9-12
After 1M-pass-pass the X+1NT just doesn't exist so 1NT is 10-14 and direct 2NT is 15-18.
#20
Posted 2007-July-02, 09:20
Fluffy, on Jul 2 2007, 09:25 AM, said:
Hannie, on Jul 2 2007, 01:43 PM, said:
Gonzalo, it seems that you play the balancing 1NT overcall as up to 16 pts, right? So then that would be the straightforward call in my opinion. This is a little heavier than what is standard for balancing over 1m in the US.
No, when LHO opens a minor it is X + 1NT = 13-16, but there is no way I will bid 1NT here because I would raise partner's major instead.
1NT is played as 9-12
After 1M-pass-pass the X+1NT just doesn't exist so 1NT is 10-14 and direct 2NT is 15-18.
I don't understand Fluffy. Say you have some 4-2-4-3 or 4-3-4-2 15-count. The systemic way to bid this hand is to double and then bid 1NT over the expected 1H, yet you have no way to show your hand if partner bids 2C? How is this playable?
- hrothgar

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