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Balance decision

#1 User is offline   cnszsun 

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Posted 2007-July-01, 07:33

Scoring: IMP

1-ps-ps-?


Would you bid 1nt (a little underbid?) or double first then convert partner's 2 to 2nt or just pass 2c?
Michael Sun

#2 User is offline   hrothgar 

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Posted 2007-July-01, 07:50

cnszsun, on Jul 1 2007, 04:33 PM, said:

Scoring: IMP

1-ps-ps-?


Would you bid 1nt (a little underbid?) or double first then convert partner's 2 to 2nt or just pass 2c?

I'm tempted to bid 1
Alderaan delenda est
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#3 Guest_Jlall_*

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Posted 2007-July-01, 07:58

I'd X, if partner bid 2C I would bid 2N. This is not even wrong on values and keeps both major suits in play.
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#4 User is offline   whereagles 

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Posted 2007-July-01, 08:33

obvious dbl ^^
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#5 User is offline   Halo 

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Posted 2007-July-01, 10:44

I have to bid, and to bid 1NT would mean changing my system.

Double and if partner get's to bid 2C I'll bid 2NT.
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#6 User is offline   foo 

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Posted 2007-July-01, 11:08

Jlall, on Jul 1 2007, 08:58 AM, said:

I'd X, if partner bid 2C I would bid 2N. This is not even wrong on values and keeps both major suits in play.

agreed.
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#7 User is offline   han 

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Posted 2007-July-01, 12:50

There are many upsides to doubling (right on values, both majors) and the only downside is that we are not quite balanced. It seems clear.
Please note: I am interested in boring, bog standard, 2/1.

- hrothgar
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#8 User is offline   nige1 

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Posted 2007-July-01, 12:56

cnszsun, on Jul 1 2007, 08:33 AM, said:

Scoring: IMP

1-ps-ps-?


Would you bid 1nt (a little underbid?) or double first then convert partner's 2 to 2nt or just pass 2c?

IMO 1N = 10, P = 9. X = 8.
Even in the protective seat, we play this as 15-18 flat with a stop.
I don't like X but if I did and partner bid 2 then IMO
- P = 10, 2 = 4, 2 =3. 2 N =2, 2 = 1
I dislike 2N no matter what system we play.
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#9 User is offline   kenrexford 

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Posted 2007-July-01, 13:24

At the table, I would double and then bid 2NT.

Question, though. I frankly do not know what 1-P-P-X-P-2-P-2 shows, or for that matter 1-P-P-X-P-1-P-2.

In thinking through options, including the fact that pass-out seat has tools like jumps and even 2NT to show various strong hands, it seems that it would be nice for these auctions to show 4441's with Opener's minor.

However, if I were to use that technique, I then think that this specific sequence of 1-P-P-X-P-2-P-2 is unique, in that the correction is a bid of Opener's minor. It seems more utilitarian to have ELC bids all the way up:

1-P-P-X-P-1-P-1 = 4414 (roughly...)
1-P-P-X-P-1-P-1 = 4144
1-P-P-X-P-1-P-2 = 1444

1-P-P-X-P-1-P-1 = 4144
1-P-P-X-P-1-P-2 = 1444
1-P-P-X-P-2-P-2 = 4441

This would seem to solve a world of hurt whenever pass-out seat has 4441 with any short suit (or 5440 with a long minor, or 5431's especially if long in Opener's minor, etc.). I also suspect that this ELC meaning would be far more useful than whatever the ELC call would otherwise mean, and that this gain would outweigh the loss of requiring some other action on the other hands (especially as I have no idea what these calls show, either).

That would solve this problem.
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#10 User is offline   helene_t 

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Posted 2007-July-01, 13:34

Actually I was about to write that I would start with a double and bid 2 over 2, allowing p to bid a 3-card M which might be easier than 2N. Then I realized that although the short hand would have to ruff diamonds in a 4-3 fit M, the opening lead would come thourgh my K so I might as well bid 2N to rightside the contract.

Seriously, I think X followed by 2 is useful in its normal meaning: 4423 or maybe 4432, typically without a diamond stop.
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#11 User is offline   skjaeran 

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Posted 2007-July-01, 14:40

foo, on Jul 1 2007, 07:08 PM, said:

Jlall, on Jul 1 2007, 08:58 AM, said:

I'd X, if partner bid 2C I would bid 2N. This is not even wrong on values and keeps both major suits in play.

agreed.

Ditto
Kind regards,
Harald
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#12 User is offline   neilkaz 

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Posted 2007-July-01, 15:08

foo, on Jul 1 2007, 12:08 PM, said:

Jlall, on Jul 1 2007, 08:58 AM, said:

I'd X, if partner bid 2C I would bid 2N. This is not even wrong on values and keeps both major suits in play.

agreed.

Ditto .. neilkaz ..
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#13 User is offline   jdonn 

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Posted 2007-July-01, 21:09

Easy double then 2NT to me. I don't see the point to bidding a major since double gets us there anyway when partner has 4 and not when he has 3, which seems perfect.

Double then pass 2 is nullo.
Please let me know about any questions or interest or bug reports about GIB.
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#14 User is offline   BebopKid 

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Posted 2007-July-01, 21:35

I double


BebopKid (Bryan Lee Williams)

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#15 User is offline   pclayton 

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Posted 2007-July-01, 23:42

Double here too. 1N has too many flaws and pass is just too deep, although it might work.
"Phil" on BBO
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#16 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2007-July-02, 03:57

I seem to play different reopening structures than most again :/.

I have no good bid for this hand, I could lie with 1, 1, double or direct 2NT (17-19). But if I doubled I would pass 2 because 2NT is 20-22.

I like 1 the most.
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#17 User is offline   foo 

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Posted 2007-July-02, 07:29

Fluffy, on Jul 2 2007, 04:57 AM, said:

I seem to play different reopening structures than most again :/.

I have no good bid for this hand, I could lie with 1, 1, double or direct 2N (17-19). But if I doubled I would pass 2 because 2N is 20-22.

I like 1 the most.

If you believe Mike Lawrence in _Balancing_, then the direct 2N balance is stronger than the balancing X followed by 2N rebid.

You appear to play them the opposite way from the book.
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#18 User is offline   han 

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Posted 2007-July-02, 07:43

What does that mean, "believe Mike Lawrence"?

Gonzalo, it seems that you play the balancing 1NT overcall as up to 16 pts, right? So then that would be the straightforward call in my opinion. This is a little heavier than what is standard for balancing over 1m in the US.
Please note: I am interested in boring, bog standard, 2/1.

- hrothgar
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#19 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2007-July-02, 08:25

Hannie, on Jul 2 2007, 01:43 PM, said:

What does that mean, "believe Mike Lawrence"?

Gonzalo, it seems that you play the balancing 1NT overcall as up to 16 pts, right? So then that would be the straightforward call in my opinion. This is a little heavier than what is standard for balancing over 1m in the US.

No, when LHO opens a minor it is X + 1NT = 13-16, but there is no way I will bid 1NT here because I would raise partner's major instead.

1NT is played as 9-12



After 1M-pass-pass the X+1NT just doesn't exist so 1NT is 10-14 and direct 2NT is 15-18.
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#20 User is offline   han 

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Posted 2007-July-02, 09:20

Fluffy, on Jul 2 2007, 09:25 AM, said:

Hannie, on Jul 2 2007, 01:43 PM, said:

What does that mean, "believe Mike Lawrence"?

Gonzalo, it seems that you play the balancing 1NT overcall as up to 16 pts, right? So then that would be the straightforward call in my opinion. This is a little heavier than what is standard for balancing over 1m in the US.

No, when LHO opens a minor it is X + 1NT = 13-16, but there is no way I will bid 1NT here because I would raise partner's major instead.

1NT is played as 9-12



After 1M-pass-pass the X+1NT just doesn't exist so 1NT is 10-14 and direct 2NT is 15-18.

I don't understand Fluffy. Say you have some 4-2-4-3 or 4-3-4-2 15-count. The systemic way to bid this hand is to double and then bid 1NT over the expected 1H, yet you have no way to show your hand if partner bids 2C? How is this playable?
Please note: I am interested in boring, bog standard, 2/1.

- hrothgar
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